When the nation of Israel was 'destroyed' and it people were carried off into other nations what was left of the people were called a remnant. This is reminiscent of when the remains of Joseph's coat of many colors was brought back to father Jacob and eventually only a 'remnant' of Joseph's coat did remain. Much is taught about the remnant of Joseph and/or the remnant of Israel. And it become significant as one considers particularly 'lost Israel', for in hat respect they who were separated from those who remained in the land of Palestine had become deamed as being lost; if not only to where they were but also as being lost to the covenant from the perspective of the Jews who did remain. And this even though the Jews themselves had once been scattered as well to Babylon and about.

Now one particular group who had been separated from the land of Israel, that is Palestine, is that group(s) which where brought to the Americas. They were the people of Lehi and the people of Mulek. Interestingly the Book of Mormon will address the people of both these groups as the 'remnant of Joseph' rather than of Judah and Joseph even though Mulek was the son of King Zedekiah. It is also considered that this group is a 'major' part of that group referenced in the blessing of Joseph under the hand of Jacob which was referred to as the fruitful bough by a well whose brancehes run over the wall' (Genesis 49:22), the wall being the ocean barrier. Listen to how Jesus addressed this group of people upon his visit to them in the land of Bountiful.

"Ye are my disciples; and ye are a light unto this people, who are a remnant of the house of Joseph." ~ 3 Nephi 15:12

Now some Mormon critics might conclude that here is proof that Joseph Smith wrote the Book of Mormon and here made a very human mistake of only having the Lord recognize only the house of Joseph when in fact the Book of Mormon had presented that the people of Zarahemla were made up of Jews descended of Mulek, and therefore the house of Judah as well as the descendants of Joseph were present and would have in truth also been so addressed by Jesus. Yet those as myself who know the Book of Mormon to be a book of God's scripture are left to consider why the Lord does but mention the people as belonging only to the house of Joseph. And to me it is an additional evidence that the royal house of David was indeed rightfully and legally of the house of Joseph and thus WERE included in Jesus Christ's statement concerning the Book of Mormon people there at the temple of Bountiful being of the house of Joseph. Consider further, Jesus is not respecter of persons and he does recognize all people before him. He is the only man who did live perfectly. He became the anoited of God the Father and Jesus was the God Jehovah in the Old Testament ministering to the people in behalf of the Father. I do not think that he would slight the house of Judah in this situation. He would recognize all who were present and did so as Mulek's descendants were properly consider as being of the house of Joseph as was our Lord Jesus Christ himself was of the house of Joseph, being even the very Messiah ben Joseph.

We have already set forth in item #38 that, by our day and age, the people of Mulek, who presumably were descendants of Judah, seem to have disapeared entirely from the native American scene unless in truth they too were in reality of the house of Joseph. If they were but Jews, that extinction seems to be the case since the Jewish lineage blessing is virtualy missing from the patriarchal blessings given to native Americans. This is backed up by the evidence given in item #38. But one will say, yes but this is some 2600 years since the days of Mulek and some two thousand years since the time of Jesus' mortal ministry. Certainly it is possible that the descendant of the Mulekites and of Judah from that source in the Americas has became scarce. After all, were not the Nephites, among whom the mulekites dwelt totally destroyed as a nation at the end of the Book of Mormon? Keep this reasoning and time difference in mind as we will continue to explore it. But first lets come at this from another perspective as well.

Some seem to ask, 'If the Savior and the royal house of David was of the house of Joseph then why did not the Savior so state it to be so, particularly during his visit to the Americas about 34 A.D.?' In terms of to the Jews in Jerusalem, the Jewish perspective had long been to claim that the Messiah was to be of Judah. And in fact Jesus' blood line did descend from Boaz and Judah. The matter seemed most academic and it was indeed Jewish blood that the Jews did shed in crucifying the Lord Messiah who they did claim to be their own. (Ever wonder what would have happened to the child of Solomon's judgment if it had been given to the wrong mother to raise?) Just like the mother in the story of the wisdom of Solomon who said, 'Go ahead and cut the baby in half', exposing herself as the false mother, so did the Jews likewise so cry out crucifying the Lord.

Well, the Savior just may well have so stated as much. And not some 2000 years after the fact when all the Jews from Mulek in America were no longer non-existant. The Nephites came across the people of Mulek, the son of King Zedekiah (Mosiah 25:2, Helaman 6:10, 8:21), at the time Mosiah the prophet led the Nephites who would harken to his voice out of the land of Nephi north into a land ruled by a king named Zarahemla, a descendant of that Mulek and the royal house of David. In fact the people of Zarahemla, like those of Lehi, had come out of Jerusalem at the same time of Zedekiah when Lehi had also departed.

"Behold, it came to pass that Mosiah discovered that the people of Zarahemla came out from Jerusalem at the time that Zedekiah, king of Judah, was carried away captive into Babylon. And they journeyed in the wilderness, and were brought by the hand of the Lord across the great waters, into the land where Mosiah discovered them; and they had dwelt there from that time forth. And at the time that Mosiah discovered them, they had become exceedingly numerous. ..." ~ Omni 1:15-17

At this time it was after 279 B.C., only some 300 year til when Jesus Christ would come and visit the natives in America after his death and resurrection. So exceedingly numerous were the Mulekites, that they out numbered the Nephites in population as reported in Mosiah only 150 years before Christ's visit.

"Now there were not so many of the children of Nephi, or so many of those who were descendants of Nephi, as there were of the people of Zarahemla, who was a descendant of Mulek, and those who came with him into the wilderness." ~ Mosiah 25:2

Presuming that the people of Zarahemla who came out of Jerusalem with Mulek, the son of King Zedekiah, were indeed Jewish, and that they were more numerous than the Nephites, then certainly one must consider that among those the Lord did visit with at Bountiful, there would be ample numbers of Jews of the house of Judah in attendance at that event along with the Nephites. Thus the Lord in that case would be speaking to both the house of Judah as well as the house of Joseph. Yet the Lord indicates this not to be the case as he only recognized the people to be of the house of Joseph.

Yes, what the Lord does indicate by the manner of his address to the Book of Mormon people at the Bountiful Temple is that they are all a remnant of the house of Joseph. This is quite enlightening that the Lord would group that larger group in population, the people of Mulek, with the smaller population of Nephites and state to all of them who were present that 'this people, who are a remnant of the house of Joseph.' (3 Nephi 15;12) 'This people' certainly would have included those descendants of Mulek and the people who came out of Jerusalem with him. And the Lord so states that they 'are a remnant of the house of Joseph.'

This is consistent with America being the land of Joseph as taught by Ether, that those who are brought here by the hand of the Lord, to the land of Joseph, are indeed of the house of Joseph. Thus one must consider that the Lord did so state that house of Mulek, that is the royal house of David, were rightfully and legally considered to be of the house of Joseph. Is that not so? Certainly Jesus in not a respecter of person, and if the house of Judah was indeed present at the Bountiful Temple, then certainly the Lord would not have discriminated against then and excluded them by only referencing the house of Joseph and not also the house of Judah. The only logical conclusion seems to be that Mulek and the people of his house who came out of Jerusalem with him, being led by the hand of the Lord and brought to this land of Joseph, were indeed officially, legally, and rightfully members of that same house of Joseph also.

This is the point of this presentation. The house of David, as here represented by the Mulekites, was indeed rightfully and legally of the house of Joseph with Rachel being their true mother who would weep for their slain and not cry out to crucify the Lord. Thus Jesus Christ, who is of the house of David, is also legally and rightfully of the house of Joseph. He is that shepherd and stone or rock of Israel promised to come of the house of Joseph. Certainly the blessings of the father, the covenant blessings of the Messiah and the gospel going forth to all nations and people is on the head of Joseph.

"The blessings of thy father have prevailed above the blessings of my progenitors unto the utmost bound of the everlasting hills: they shall be on the head of Joseph and on the crown of the head of him that was separate from his brethern." ~ Genesis 49:26

This is the great blessing of the covenant which lies upon the head of Joseph and not Judah. It is the blessing of right which came through the house of Joseph upon it rightful heir, Jesus Christ. He is Messiah ben Joseph. The house of David or better said, the house of Jesse, is of the house of Joseph and the line by which the blessings of the covenant of the fathers did come and remain and brought forth in and by the Son of God, even Jesus Christ, the Great Jehovah.